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You may need to take the IELTS Academic test if you want to enroll in higher education or seek professional registration in an English-speaking nation.
The IELTS Academic exam determines if you are ready to study at an undergraduate or postgraduate level, or work in a professional environment as a doctor, nurse, teacher, or lawyer, by assessing your English-language competence at an academic level.
For those migrating to Australia, Canada, the United Kingdom, or other foreign countries or seeking secondary education, training programs, or work experience in an English-speaking environment.
Both versions examine the four language skills in a valid and accurate manner: Listening, Speaking, Reading and Writing.
By taking the IELTS test, you will be putting your English skills to the test as though you were in a real-life situation with native English speakers.
The test is designed to evaluate several English language skills, including speaking, listening, writing, and reading, as well as a live conversation with an assessor to prepare you for real-life circumstances whether it's to communicate with international classmates at school, clients in work, or even on a trip overseas.
You will receive a test record that is recognized and approved by thousands of organizations worldwide, including employers, universities, professional bodies, and government agencies, if you take an IELTS test. Your English language abilities will improve.
Simpler course complexity.
World wide recognition
Option for Paper based or computer based IELTS exam
In Computer Based Test (CBT), you can go back and forth for the questions any time.
For example, while attempting reading section, if you wish to skip few questions and come bake again after attending other questions, it is possible to do so.
Exam result for paper based IELTS delivers on the 13th days after the test. CBT IELTS delivers results swiftly in 2-3 days.
There are few features of CBT IELTS test which makes your experience easy:
Dates Availability
Need to book Paper based test well in advance like 15-20 days prior. Exam is conducted once a Week. I.e., 4 times a month. Although, CBT tests are more frequent and mostly 4 to 5 times a week.
Exam day occupancy:
IELTS paper-based tests are held 1 PM till 4.30 PM on the test day. This is fix time for any location. But the reporting time to test center is 11 to 11.30 AM in order to process large number of candidates (approximately 150-200 students per center) for their credential check and other formalities.
Result Availability:
Paper based exam result will be declared on the 13th day after the test day. That’s a quite long period if in case one needs to reappear in the test for better result.
IELTS began offering students the option of taking the test on a computer rather than on paper about three years ago. Every day since then, we've received emails from students wondering, "Which one is easier?!?"
Every time, we respond the same way – neither!
That's correct; the questions on both the computer-based and paper-based tests are identical.
In reality, Cambridge and IELTS have released a number of study papers comparing computer-based exam outcomes to paper-based exam results.
When deciding between a computer-based or paper-based exam, the only question you should ask yourself is: Which one is best for me?
If student is more confident and is using laptop or computer on daily basis and has an average grip of writing and reading to the screen, then it is okay to take CBT test. But those who does not use PC daily, they might end up having slow speed while typing, few typo errors and difficulty in reading the screen for the content.
You will pay attention to 4 recordings of local English audio system after which write your solutions to a sequence of questions.
Recording 1 – a talk between two people that takes place in a normal social setting.
Recording 2 – a monologue placed in a common social setting, such as a speech about local amenities
Recording 3 – a discussion among up to four persons in an educational or training context, such as a university tutor and a student discussing an assignment.
Recording 4 – a monologue about a topic in education, such as a college lecture.
The paper is divided into four sections, each with ten questions. The answers to the questions are presented in the same order as they are heard in the audio.
The first two sections are concerned with scenarios that occur in ordinary social settings. There is a dialogue between two speakers in Part 1 (for example, a conversation concerning trip preparations), then a monologue in Part 2. (For example, a speech about local facilities). The following two sections are concerned with scenarios that occur in educational and training settings. Part 3 features a chat between two primary speakers (for example, two university students discussing a topic with the help of a tutor), and Part 4 features a monologue on a topic of academic interest.
The recordings are heard only once. They include a range of accents, including British, Australian, New Zealand, American and Canadian.
Timing: Approximately 30 minutes (plus 10 minutes transfer time).
Total Questions: 40
Multiple choice:
Test takers are occasionally given a longer list of possible responses and told that they must select more than one. In this instance, they should carefully examine the question to determine how many responses are required.
Focus on the task: Multiple choice questions are used to assess a variety of abilities.
A comprehensive grasp of individual points or an overall understanding of the main points of the listening material may be needed of the exam taker.
Matching:
A question is followed by three possible responses, or the beginning of a statement is followed by three possible ways to finish the sentence in multiple choice exercises. Test takers must select one of the three correct answers: A, B, or C.
Test takers must match a numbered list of things from the listening text to a set of options on the answer sheet. The list of possibilities could be some form of criterion.
plan/map/diagram labelling,
Test takers must label a plan (for example, a building), a map (for example, a section of a town), or a diagram (e.g., of a piece of equipment). Typically, the responses are chosen from a list on the question paper.
This type of test assesses the capacity to comprehend a description of a place, for example, and relate it to a visual representation. This could involve the ability to understand and follow language that expresses spatial relationships and directions (for example, straight on/through the far door).
Form/note/table/flow-chart/summary completion:
Test takers must fill in the blanks in an outline of a portion or the entire listening text. The primary ideas/facts in the text will be the focus of the outline. It could be:
Sentence completion:
Test takers must read a group of phrases that summarize significant information from the entire listening text or a portion of it. They then use information from the listening text to fill in the gaps in each sentence. ‘NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER' is an example of a word limit.
Test takers are penalized if they write more words than the allotted time. (Test takers should double-check the word limit for each task: it can be ONE, TWO, or THREE words.) Words that have been contracted will not be tested. Words with hyphens are counted as separate words.
Short Answer Questions:
Test takers must read a question and then write a brief response based on the information provided in the listening text. ‘NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER' is an example of a word restriction. Test takers are penalised if they write more words than the allotted time. (Test takers should double-check each task's word restriction.) Words that have been contracted will not be tested. Words with hyphens are counted as separate words. Test takers are occasionally asked to mention two or three points in response to a question.
Sentence completion focuses on the ability to listen for concrete facts in the listening text, such as places, prices, or times.
The Reading part contains 40 questions that are designed to assess a variety of reading abilities. Reading for key ideas, detail, skimming, understanding logical argument, and recognizing writers' viewpoints, attitudes, and intent are all examples.
The IELTS Academic test consists of three long texts ranging from descriptive and factual to argumentative and analytical in nature. These quotations are from books, journals, periodicals, and newspapers. They were chosen for a non-specialist audience, although they are also ideal for students starting university courses or seeking professional registration.
Timing: 60 minutes
Total questions: 40
Section 1: Multiple choice
Test takers must choose the best answer from four options (A, B, C, or D), or the best two answers from five options (A, B, C, D, or E), or the best three answers from seven options (A, B, C, D, or E) (A, B, C, D, E, F or G). On the answer sheet, test takers write the letter of the answer they chose. Complete questions, in which the test takers are given the first half of a statement and must choose the best way to complete it from the possibilities, or complete questions, in which the test takers must choose the option that best answers the question.
Section 2: Choosing correct Information
Test takers will be presented with a series of statements and asked, "Do the following statements agree with the information in the text?" They must next fill up the blanks on their answer sheets with the words "true," "false," or "not given."
It's crucial to know the distinction between "false" and "not given." 'False' signifies that the passage contradicts the statement in question; 'not given' means that the information in the passage neither confirms nor contradicts the statement in issue.
Students must realize that any information they bring from outside the passage should not be used in determining their answers.
Section 3: Identify writer’s point of view
Type and format of the task: Test takers will be given a list of assertions and asked, "Do the following statements agree with the writer's views/claims?" They must fill up the boxes on their answer sheet with the words "yes," "no," or "not given."
It's crucial to know the difference between "no" and "not given." 'No' indicates that the writer's opinions or claims clearly contradict the statement, i.e. the writer expresses a view or makes a claim that is contrary to the one stated in the question; 'not given' indicates that the view or claim is neither confirmed nor refuted.
Section 4: Match correct information
Type and format of the task: Test takers must discover particular information within a text's lettered paragraphs/sections and write the letters of the proper paragraphs/sections in the boxes on their answer sheet.
Specific details, an example, a reason, a description, a comparison, a summary, and an explanation may be requested. They won't have to look for information in every paragraph/section of the text, but there may be more than one piece of information in a particular paragraph/section. They will be told that they can use any letter more than once if this is the case.
Section 5: Heading identification
Test takers are given a list of headings, which are commonly denoted by lower-case Roman numerals (i, ii, iii, etc,). The primary concept of a paragraph or chunk of material will be referenced by a heading. Test takers must match the header to the appropriate paragraphs or sections, which are alphabetically labelled. On their answer sheets, test participants fill in the relevant Roman numerals. Because there will always be more headers than paragraphs or sections, certain headings will be skipped. It's also possible that some paragraphs or sections of the work will be omitted.
Section 6: Match Features
Type and format of the task: Test takers must match a collection of statements or pieces of information to a list of choices. The choices are a collection of textual features that are denoted by letters. For example, test takers may be asked to match various study findings to a list of researchers, or attributes to age groups, events to historical periods, and so on. It's possible that some selections won't be used, while others will be used multiple times. If options can be used more than once, the instructions will let test takers know.
Section 7: Complete sentence
The first half of a sentence based on the text is presented to test participants, who are then asked to choose the best way to complete it from a range of options. They will have more options than questions to choose from. On the answer sheet, test takers must write the letter they chose. The questions are arranged in the same order as the information in the passage: the first question in this group will be answered before the second, and so on. Any type of text can be utilized with this task type.
Section 8: Complete sentence
Type and format of the task: Test takers must complete sentences using a set number of words from the text. They must fill out the answer sheet with their responses. The instructions will specify how many words/numbers test takers should use in their responses, such as ‘NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER FROM THE PASSAGE,' ‘ONE WORD ONLY,' or ‘NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.'
If test takers write more than the required number of words, they will receive a minus grade. Figures or words can be used to write numbers. Words that have been contracted will not be tested. Words with hyphens are counted as separate words. The questions are arranged in the same order as the passage's information.
Section 9: Flow-chart, summary completion
Test takers are given a synopsis of a segment of the text and are expected to fill in the blanks with information from the text. The summary will usually simply cover a portion of the section rather than the entire passage.
There are two types of tasks in this category. Test takers may be asked to choose from a list of responses or to select words from the text.
Where words from the passage must be chosen, the instructions will specify how many words/numbers test takers should use in their answers, such as ‘NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage,' ‘ONE WORD ONLY,' or ‘NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.' If test takers write more than the required number of words, they will receive a failing grade.
Section 10: Diagram label completion
Type and format of the task: Test takers must complete labels on a diagram that corresponds to a text description. The instructions will specify how many words/numbers test takers should use in their responses, such as ‘NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER FROM THE PASSAGE,' ‘ONE WORD ONLY,' or ‘NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.'
If test takers write more than the required number of words, they will receive a failing grade. Figures or words can be used to write numbers. Words that have been contracted will not be tested. Words with hyphens are counted as separate words. The answers do not always appear in the same sequence in the passage. They will, however, frequently derive from a single area of the text rather than the complete text.
Section 11: Answer short question
Test takers respond to questions that are usually related to factual information regarding details in the text. This is most likely to be utilized with a text that contains a great deal of depth and factual information.
On the answer sheet, test takers must put their answers in words or numbers. Test takers must use words from the book to write their answers. The instructions will specify how many words/numbers test takers should use in their responses, such as ‘NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER FROM THE PASSAGE,' ‘ONE WORD ONLY,' or ‘NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.' If test takers write more than the required number of words, they will receive a failing grade.
Test takers beginning undergraduate and postgraduate degrees, as well as those seeking professional registration, will find the topics of general interest and suitability. There are two tasks to complete:
Task 1: You will be given a graph, table, chart, or diagram and asked to describe, summarise, or explain it in your own words. You may be requested to describe and explain data, process phases, how something works, or a specific object or event.
Task 2: entails writing an essay in response to a point of view, argument, or problem. Both tasks must be completed in a formal manner.
Timing: 60 minutes
No. of questions: 2
Types of questions include:
Test takers are required to describe some visual information (graph, table, chart, or diagram) in their own words in Task 1. They have around 20 minutes to write 150 words. They react to a point of view, argument, or problem in Task 2. They have roughly 40 minutes to write 250 words.
Answering: All responses must be written in full on the answer sheet. Answers in the form of notes or bullet points are not acceptable. Test takers are allowed to scribble on the question paper, but they cannot take it out of the room and the examiner will not see it.
Task 1:
Test takers may be asked to describe data or numbers offered in one or more graphs, charts, or tables on a related topic in Writing Task 1, or they may be given a schematic of a mechanism, equipment, or process and asked to explain how it works. They should use academic or semi-formal/neutral writing styles and contain only the most important and relevant aspects in the diagram. Some small information or points may be omitted.
This task should take no more than 20 minutes to complete. They must write a minimum of 150 words and will be penalized if their response is too short. While there will be no penalty for writing more than 150 words, test takers should keep in mind that a longer Task 1 answer may imply less time for Task 2, which counts for twice as much in the Writing band score.
Task 2:
Test takers should also be aware that if their response is off-topic or not written as a complete, connected text, they will be penalized for irrelevance (e.g., using bullet points in any part of the response, or note form, etc.). Plagiarism will result in serious consequences for them.
Test takers are assigned a topic to write on in either an academic or semi-formal/neutral style in Writing Task 2. Answers should be a deliberate discussion of the pertinent issues. Test takers should read the task thoroughly and respond in a complete and appropriate manner. For example, if the topic is a certain feature of computers, they should concentrate their response on that component. They shouldn't just write about computers as a whole.
This task should take no more than 40 minutes to complete. They must write a minimum of 250 words and will be penalized if their response is too short. While there will be no penalty for writing more than 250 words, if students write a long answer, they may not have enough time to check and correct it at the end, and some thoughts may not be directly related to the topic.
Task: 2 counts for twice as much as Task 1 in determining the overall Writing band score. As a result, test takers who do not attempt to complete this job will have a much lower probability of receiving a good band.
If the response is off-topic or not written as a full, continuous text, the test taker will be penalized for irrelevance (e.g., using bullet points in any part of the response, or note form, etc.). Plagiarism will result in serious consequences for them (i.e., copying from another source). Finally, test takers should avoid copying directly from the question paper because this will not be evaluated.
Task 1: You will be given a situation and will be required to compose a letter asking information or describing the circumstance. The letter might be written in a personal, semi-formal, or official tone.
Inquire about the type and format: In Writing Task 1, test takers are given a scenario and asked to write a personal response in the form of an informal, semi-formal, or formal letter of at least 150 words in the assigned answer booklet. The situations they are asked to write about are common, everyday ones like writing to a college accommodation officer about housing problems, writing to a new employer about time management issues, writing to a local newspaper about a plan to develop a local airport, and writing to a renting agency about problems with their house's heating system.
Test takers are advised what kind of information they must include in their response (in the form of three bullet points). They may be asked to ask for or provide information, as well as to explain a situation. They may be required to ask for and/or supply general factual information, express requirements, wants, likes or dislikes, voice opinions or complaints, make requests, or make suggestions/recommendations in order to do so.
The writing style used by test takers is determined by who they are writing to (the audience) and how well they are expected to know them. They must write in a manner that is acceptable for their audience and will assist them in achieving their goals, such as writing to a buddy (casual) or writing to a manager (formal) (semi-formal or formal). There is no need for test takers to include any addresses at the top of their letters.
This task should take no more than 20 minutes to complete. They must write a minimum of 150 words and will be penalized if their response is too short. While there will be no penalty for writing more than 150 words, test takers should keep in mind that a longer Task 1 answer may imply less time for Task 2, which counts for twice as much in the Writing band score.
Task 2: entails writing an essay in response to a point of view, argument, or problem. In terms of style, the essay can be quite personal.
Task 2 is same as Academic considering few general topics of essays would be asked.
The speaking portion evaluates your ability to communicate in English. Every test is kept track of.
Part 1: The examiner will ask you broad questions about yourself and a variety of familiar themes like home, family, work, studies, and hobbies. This section lasts about four to five minutes.
Part 2: You'll be handed a card that asks you to discuss a certain topic. Before speaking for up to two minutes, you will have one minute to prepare. After that, the examiner will ask one or two questions on the same subject.
Part 3: You'll be asked more questions about the topic discussed in Part 2. These will allow you to talk about more abstract concepts and issues. This section of the test lasts between four to five minutes.
Total Timings: 11-14 minutes
No. of questions: 2
Types of questions include:
Part 1:
introduction and overview questions
The examiner introduces himself and verifies the identity of the test takers in this section. They then ask the exam takers generic questions about their homes, families, jobs, studies, and hobbies. Questions are taken from a script to maintain uniformity. Part 1 is 4–5 minutes long.
The purpose of this section of the test is to assess your ability to convey thoughts and facts about ordinary themes, as well as common events and situations, by answering a series of questions.
Part 2:
Cue cards
The individual long turn is the second task type and format. The examiner hands the test takers a task card that advises them to discuss a certain topic, lists points to cover in their discussion, and asks them to explain one element of the topic. Test takers are given one minute to prepare their discussion, as well as a pencil and paper with which to take notes. The examiner instructs the test takers to speak for one to two minutes, then stops them after two minutes and asks one or two questions on the same subject.
The test takers will be able to think of acceptable things to say, plan their discourse, and maintain talking for 2 minutes if they use the points on the task card properly and take notes throughout the preparation period. Part 2 takes 3–4 minutes to complete, including prep time.
Part 3:
Counter question based on cue card topic (Generally)
Type and format of the task: In Part 3, the examiner and test takers debate issues relating to the topic in Part 2 in a more general and abstract manner, as well as in greater depth where applicable. Part 3 is 4–5 minutes long.
The capacity to articulate and justify viewpoints, as well as to analyze, argue, and speculate about issues, is the focus of this section of the test.
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